Jason Pratt on Lewis
This is by frequent commenter Jason Pratt, on what I am missing in Lewis's argument from reason.
....... C. S. Lewis' (most?) Dangerous Idea.......
When Professor Victor Reppert wrote his detailed analysis of variants of
the Argument from Reason (especially in connection to the work of C. S.
Lewis), a few years ago, I opined more-or-less steadily through various
drafts and into the finished copy (and beyond in occasional comments since
then), that despite his book's title (_C. S. Lewis' Dangerous Idea_, wryly
riffing on the title of Daniel Dennett's _Darwin's Dangerous Idea_) Victor
was downplaying the most "dangerous" application of Lewis' argument: the
application Lewis himself culminates his chapter with.
I recently mentioned this again in a private critique of some potential
encyclopedia entries; and while collating discussion on the theistic
Argument from Reason, Victor has publicly opened the debate here on his
second DangIdea site. (To which initial comments Victor will probably link
this letter for prior reference, below.)
The discussion between us, is on the value of the portion of Lewis' 3rd
chapter from the 2nd edition of _Miracles: A Preliminary Study_, which (for
quick reference sake) begins "'But,' it will be said, 'it is incontestable
that we do in fact reach truths by inferences.'", and which (for our
purposes) ends at roughly the place where Lewis writes, "On these terms the
Theist's position must be a chimera nearly as outrageous as the
Naturalist's." Victor has posted a bit more than half of this in his
initial remarks (opening the public debate). Of course, none of us should
be reading and analyzing this apart from the progression and development of
Lewis' argument up to the beginning of that climactic section; so for
reference sake I encourage readers unfamiliar with the work to please refer
(if a copy isn't handy) to the page Victor linked several days earlier,
containing a text of MaPS Chp 3 (2nd edition). This page can be found at
http://www.philosophy.uncc.edu/mleldrid/Intro/csl3.html (That's CSL 3, not
CS thirteen, for readers with some kinds of fonting...)
As usual, I will caution that there is a prevalent tendency to conflate
between the category of atheism/theism and the category of
naturalism/supernaturalism. While I find Lewis was actually better about
avoiding category error switches on this topic than the average (especially
in MaPS 2nd ed), his presentation is still worded with this conflation in
view, and there are times when (in acceding to the popular use of the term
Naturalism) he verges hard on category error. Between this, and the fact
that most subsequent commentators are in the habit of conflating the
categories (not infrequently in convenience to whatever argument they're
trying to make), figuring out what Lewis was primarily attempting in this
chapter can become (even?) more difficult.
In opening his recent public comments on the topic, Victor contended, or
seemed to contend, that Lewis was disagreeing with Darwinians that
evolutionary development could lead to effective mental behaviors in
relation to true facts. Lewis does have something to say about the
difficulty of evolutionarily developed expectations being proposed as
leading to a power to recognize truths; and this can be found beginning at
the very top of page 30 (paginated according to the hyperlinked text
referenced above) down to roughly the first sentence completion at the top
of page 31 (with some commentary and explication afterward leading into the
portion I have identified as the climactic summary; this can be found
beginning at the bottom of page 32.)
However: if we go back to the beginning of the first full paragraph on page
28, down to the bottom of page 29, we will find Lewis nevertheless
_agreeing_ with the notion that evolutionary processes could plausibly
result in the development of effective mental reactions (the phrase
"responses to stimuli" is how Lewis puts it) which, in the consequent
accuracy of connecting behaviors to true facts of reality, Lewis admits,
"might serve us as well as reason or in some circumstances better."
I contend that in making this concession, Lewis is actually agreeing with
the sort of notion represented by Victor's quotation of Antony Flew; not
disagreeing with it. (Not so far as that quote itself goes anyway, aside
from whatever Flew does with the notion elsewhere.)
Victor finds the portion of Chp 3 which I call the climactic summary, to be
dissatisfactory as a way of ending-and-illustrating Lewis' disagreement
with (specifically) Darwinian claims of effective process development. I
agree that this portion would in fact be dissatisfactory as such an
ending-and-illustration; _if_ Lewis intended for it to be used that way.
I believe he did not intend for the climactic summary to be used that way.
He is not primarily aiming at critiquing this or that particular Darwinian
explanation for the rise of effective epistemic behavior. He isn't aiming
at various fish; but for Leviathan itself.
(In passing, let me add that I may have misread Victor originally to be
trying to say that one part of this climactic portion was Lewis presenting
"the Darwinian objection to his argument from reason", instead of pointing
to a different subsequent portion where this objection would be better
located instead, which Victor did go on to give after some interspersed
commentary. In retrospect, I expect that when Victor wrote "Here Lewis
presents the Darwinian objection..." he was thinking in terms of what he
would quote from Lewis _next_, after a commentary digression, instead of
what he _had just quoted_. If so, I readily retract an incidental criticism
I made in a preliminary comment, with apologies.)
My contention is that in MaPS chapter 3, Lewis is carefully building up to
a tactical deduction of atheism out of the pool of philosophical options.
Whether or not he succeeds or fails at this, _this_ is his "dangerous
idea". He is going for the heart; not against various fingers and toes or
even arms and legs. He intends this argument to be a deadly (if polite)
threat to atheism across the board, at the very root of any person's ground
for choosing to believe atheism or not.
In order to trace and demonstrate this most fully, I would (of course) be
required to analyze the progression of Lewis' argument point for point;
something that would require far more length from me than chapter 3 itself!
As a quick-n-dirty illustration, though, I can combine (a) Lewis' treatment
of the word "Naturalism" in chp 3, in topical connection with (b) his
treatment of the words 'rational' and 'non/not/sub-rational' (which
not-incidentally begin on page 28), in conjunction with (c) his original
title for the chapter ("The Self-Refutation of the Naturalist", or
"Self-Contradiction", my sources differ--either of which in itself ought to
be sufficient evidence for his original intention at least!); along with
(d) Lewis' removal of the term 'irrational' from his original 1st edition
of the chapter, substituting for it in the 2nd edition the _stronger_
negative terms mentioned at (b). (Terms insisted upon by Anscombe and,
ironically, Flew.)
Lewis did not gear down chapter 3, after his loss to Anscombe, his more
cautious title notwithstanding. He took Anscombe's critiques, incorporated
them, revised his argument, and _ramped up_ at least the apparent (I would
say actual) strength of his argument thereby.
Leaving aside even a fast summary of _how_ Lewis is getting there, his
final aim may (I believe) be accurately described thus: Lewis intends to
demonstrate that the claim of atheism sooner or later _requires_ the
atheist to have to do one or the other of two logically illegitimate
moves--justify that our justification abilities can be possibly accurate,
or justify that our mental behaviors can be possibly accurate even if we
don't (in fact) have justification abilities. Ultimately there is no other
option (once the topic turns to epistemology) under rigorous atheism. We
can see that non-rational causation frequently produces non-rational
effects, and atheism requires that our own apparently rational behaviors
must be ultimately produced and maintained by non-rational behaviors.
In order to fully appreciate the problem, rational behavior must be
discussed in context of intentional actions while avoiding various pitfalls
(e.g. the externalistic fallacy), in comparison to and distinction from
non-intentive purely automatic reactive behaviors.
At which point, two basic paths emerge: either true action capability (and
not merely the illusion thereof) is produced somehow by-and-only-by
reactions and counterreactions; or else only non-intentive reactions and
counterreactions exist. The latter directly calls into question any claims
we ourselves may make to personal cogency, but in either case it is readily
apparent from experience that usually non-rational causation only causes
non-rational effects. _Why then_ should we insist that our own real
reasoning is _not_ only knee-jerk reaction to stimulus? Or, alternately, if
our own ostensible reasoning is in fact only knee-jerk reaction to stimulus
_why then_ should we insist on being taken seriously?
The potential answers for 'why then' in either case, however, are
irrelevant, for in _any_ case they will require necessarily presuming what
they are hoping to defend.
Lewis doesn't present his argument in quite these terms and fashions, but I
find that this is the dichotomy he is trying to set up. If the proposition
of atheism necessarily requires that we end up having to justify that our
real-or-apparent justification abilities can in fact possibly be effective,
then dichomatic fallacies necessarily follow from proposing atheism.
Consequently, atheism should be removed from the list and not-atheism
(naturalistic or otherwise) should be believed instead. Formality aside,
not-atheism, of course, effectively equals theism.
Among other things, the argument recognizes that our effective reasoning
capability be a (if not _the_) necessary presumption for _any_ argument.
This means we cannot prove thereby that our reason exists; we can only
demonstrate and follow out what happens when we presume otherwise in a
self-reflexive fashion, observing along the way, not-incidentally, that
even to try to presume otherwise and operate on that presumption, we
essentially still must presume _not_-otherwise!
This is why Lewis writes (near the top of page 33), "If the value of our
reasoning is in doubt, you cannot try to establish it by reasoning. [...]
Reason is our starting point. There can be no question either of attacking
or defending it." Lewis' aim is to demonstrate that atheism necessarily
leads sooner or later to having to explain _why_ our justificational
ability (more specifically our own, _my own_--not some hypostatized
"humanity's") should be accepted as being possibly accurate. One way or
another, the atheist cannot get around this without begging the question.
(In passing, I will here note that the argument cannot be considered
finished at this point, for theism would have to be tested too for a
similar failure!--something Lewis, so far as I have ever been able to tell,
completely misses. Nor does Victor discuss it, so far as I recall.)
It will (and should) be noted that this is a soft deduction, even if it is
successful. In effect, by using Lewis' most dangerous argument (or a
refined variant of it), I am discovering that so long as I insist on taking
my own intellectual claims seriously, I ought to believe God exists, and I
ought not to believe that God doesn't exist. What I find I must necessarily
believe to be true about myself, for purposes of making _any_ argument, I
find I must doubt without any way to legitimately escape the doubt, so long
as I also propose atheism to be true.
The extent to which this may be considered to be a hard proof of God's
existence could be easily critiqued (and I expect rebutted). That it leads
deductively to a conclusion that I _should believe_ God exists, with the
action of that choice (to believe or not to believe) still to follow, is I
think less debatable--if the argument actually holds, of course.
Let me also say that this is only a barest rendering of the argument, and
that I do not even remotely expect it to be fleshed out sufficiently for
acceptance by an opponent yet. I can think of many topical considerations
still needing discussion in regard to the argument, myself. My main purpose
here is not to argue exhaustively for the position, but to contend that
this is ultimately what Lewis is trying to accomplish in his argument: the
deductive removal of a position by demonstrating that a necessarily fatal
dilemma necessarily follows from treating the position as being true. This
is also reflected, though more crudely, in practically every reference by
Lewis to what we now would call the theistic AfR (keeping in mind Lewis
never referred to it by this title), outside of MaPS, either edition. It is
also reflected in Lewis' move to become an absolute idealist upon
acceptance of the argument's conclusion: he precisely rejected _atheism_
and accepted _not-atheism_ instead, making the minimal move necessarily
implied by the conclusion.
Steve Lovell seems to think that Lewis only sees a _possibility_ of the
atheist making such a question-begging response--which is surprising given
Steve's own thorough analysis of the argument. I contend that Lewis
(rightly or wrongly) sees the eventual _necessity_ of the atheist making a
question-begging response; and _not_ to an argument by Lewis from reason to
not-atheism (an argument which, it should be observed, _Lewis hasn't
already given_ at the point Steve is commenting on!--though Lewis is in the
process of giving the concluding elements there), but to the challenge
posed by atheism's own first implications in regard to human epistemology:
_from_ nothing, comes _nothing_. From no-reason comes... reason? Or just
more no-reason? Either claim requires a subsequent follow-up that can only
beg the question in regard to the epistemic claims we ourselves are making
right that moment _in order to_ follow-up on either claim. This is
completely reflected in the quotes, from outside MaPS, with which Steve
begins his own analysis of the argument's history and implications, btw. It
will also be noticed that this is completely reflected in the title (and
contents?) of John Lucas' new debate with Elizabeth Anscombe, held several
years after Lewis' death, with Lucas taking the role of defending Lewis'
argument: "Is Mechanism Self-Refuting?"
(It would be a mistake to infer from this title that Lewis ended up only
aiming at a particular kind of determinism, by the way; as most of his 2nd
edition chp 3 is explicitly presented in discussion of a 'naturalism' that
need not even be purely materialistic! This explicit announcement occurs
right after the quote from Haldane, on page 20, which tends to lead some
critics, who couldn't be bothered to read a sentence or two further, to
think Lewis only has mechanistic determinism in view.)
Steve also claims (in relation to the quote from Flew presented by Victor
in his opening statement) that Flew "is not trying to remove doubts about
our cognitive faculties, he is attempting to stop those doubts from arising
in the first place."
It looks to me, from the quote given, like the doubt has already been
established, and Flew is trying to defend against it. (i.e. Ernest Gellner
writes, "If [naturalism] is true, then it is always _a mere coincidence_
that what we believe is also true." [my emphasis] To which Flew is, by
Steve's report, responding.)
But supposing Steve is correct instead, this still raises a portentous
question: why should Flew have to attempt to stop those doubts from arising
in the first place? Is he _having to_ attempt to stop those doubts from
arising? If so, and if he is appealing to the effectiveness of a process in
order to prevent those doubts, then he is still falling afoul of what Lewis
is actually attempting. For Lewis' ultimate point is that Flew, from the
presumption of atheism, _will have to_ make a defense (whether that
involves stopping doubts from arising in the first place, or whatever.)
Flew's doubt prevention strategy cannot possibly be successful at avoiding
begging what Lewis says is being questioned--which is why Lewis (in his 2nd
edition) answers Flew (in effect) the way that he does.
Put another way, Flew wants to succeed at keeping the possible reliability
of his cognitive faculties from being called into question, and proposes to
do so by using his presumably possibly reliable cognitive faculties to
explain why ancestors of his who had possibly reliable cognitive faculties
were more likely to survive to pass any improvements (accidental ones per
atheism, of course) in those possibly reliable cognitive faculties along,
etc. It doesn't matter what his defense attempt is, though. He has already
shot himself in the foot. (Which, I expect, is why Lewis can seem ambiguous
about whether he accepts or rejects portions of Flew's defense. It's a
secondary matter, and he isn't primarily concerned about it.)
BDK, in commenting on perhaps the key statement of the climactic summary
(where Lewis writes, "If the value of our reasoning is in doubt, you cannot
try to establish it by reasoning."), notes that if we accept this, we kill
epistemology. To the extent that epistemology currently involves justifying
our justification capabilities, that would indeed be true!--but that
doesn't make the statement less correct. It would just mean epistemology
has gone badly off the tracks somewhere (or numerous somewheres.)
In any case, Lewis can be said to proceed by assuming BDK's (1) ("That
human reasoning is epistemically valuable"); but Lewis is _not_ actually
proceeding by going on to BDK's (2) ("Argue that this skill couldn't have
evolved via natural processes.") That would be a variant of the argument
from reason, certainly, and a popular variant, too--Victor, for example,
frequently appeals to it in various ways (as do I on occasion. So does
Steve in the article Victor links to.) But it is not what Lewis is doing.
Also, for Lewis to make the claim quoted above ("If the value of our
reasoning is in doubt..."), manifestly does _NOT_ undercut the first of the
steps listed by BDK. To observe that we cannot reasonably reestablish the
value of our reasoning once that value is doubted, is not the same as
actually _doubting_ the value of our reasoning. (BDK's further comments are
not inappropriate, but Victor is handling those elsewhere.)
I have an expectation that Victor's denigration of Lewis' efforts in what I
am calling the climactic summary portion of MaPS chp 3, hinges on Victor's
preference for Best Explanation variants of the AfR instead of Sceptical
Threat variants; and be he right or wrong, Lewis in _that_ portion is
certainly making a type of Sceptical Threat AfR. But I don't believe Lewis
is making quite the same kind of ST-AfR that Victor nominally rejects.
What Victor objects to (as Steve in his own analysis rightly summarizes
from Victor's work), is the kind of argument that proceeds by raising
sceptical doubts about the validity of reasoning and then goes on to argue
that such doubts can be resolved only if 'naturalism' (more specifically
atheism) is denied. Victor correctly observes that no absolute security
against such doubts is available from any quarter. Of course not!--if we
appeal to theism (or not-atheism) in order to reestablish our security on
this, then we are only doing what Lewis is excoriating the atheists for
doing. But that is not the point of the Lewisian AfR; or anyway that is not
the point of its 'gist', so to speak, for as Lewis presents it the argument
does need better phrasing in order to clarify its proper implications. (I
am especially but not exclusively thinking here of the chp 3 material
subsequent to the climactic summary, which if read out of context can
easily seem to be appealing to theism in order to justifiably restore our
confidence in the possible reliability of our justification ability. I
don't believe Lewis is actually doing this even here, any more than he does
on a similar application later in chapter 13 "On Probability", but it could
be misunderstood that way.)
Properly presented, though, the most dangerous version of the Lewisian AfR
needs no such re-establishment. It proceeds by beginning from Reason, just
as Lewis says, and by looking to see whether one of a dichomatic group
itself necessarily raises questions about reasoning which necessarily need
answering but can only be answered by begging the question. At a more basic
level, the Lewisian AfR isn't even really about deducting away a threat to
the _validity of reasoning_ per se; a phrase that is probably a non
sequitur anyway (though used by Lewis in his presentation.) Lewis is not
assuming validity (or whatever may be considered most important about our
reasoning for purposes of presenting our own arguments) is a fact and then
asking whether in an atheistic reality one can account for the assumed
fact. He is demonstrating that under the proposition of atheism, we have to
try to account for something otherwise necessarily presumed to be factual.
This is subtly but crucially different as a tactic.
We may, if we wish, reduce Lewis' point down to this: _from_ the necessary
presumption of our reasoning ability, for sake of argument, we can consider
atheism or not-atheism. Does either of these require us to try to
subsequently account for the existence of something we are already
necessarily presuming to be factual? Since, under atheism, our reasoning
behaviors must depend upon non-rational behaviors, this necessarily
requires us to try to subsequently account for the existence of a type of
behavior which we are already presuming to factually exist, even in order
to try making that account. The distinction between theism and atheism is
precisely a distinction about the existence of that type of behavior.
Atheism denies that behavior's existence at a fundamental level; requiring
it to be produced or substituted in derivation. Theism at least doesn't
involve the denial of that behavior's existence, and so doesn't introduce
an immediate disparity in regard to our own derivative reasoning claims.
Does atheism involve introducing conflicts with the character and quality
we ourselves claim for our own reasoning when making any argument? Lewis
demonstrates (or at least aims at demonstrating) the answer is yes; and
then effectively assumes without further evaluation that the answer would
necessarily be no for not-atheism (i.e. for theism.)
If Lewis' demonstration is properly accurate, though; _and_ if an
evaluation of theism's implications does not reveal necessary introduction
of conflicts with the character and quality we ourselves claim for our own
reasoning when making any argument; then we will have deduced, not strictly
that atheism is false, but that so long as we take our own reasoning
seriously we ought to reject atheism as false--and accept not-atheism as
true.
Which, in a cruder but equivalent fashion, is how and why Lewis the atheist
eventually decided to believe theism to be true instead. (While, at first,
_keeping_ his philosophical _naturalism_.)
Jason Pratt
Addendum: it may be asked if this means no Best Explanation AfR can be
derived from Lewis' work. I believe Victor and others have amply
demonstrated that various kinds of BE-AfR may be derived from, or
illustrated by, Lewis' work as well. I also believe, however, that Lewis
was not primarily aiming at this, which explains why in his own climactic
summary he is clearly not making that kind of argument. Efforts to try to
demonstrate that the primary importance of Lewis' AfR is in providing a
BE-AfR instead, are always going to be unable to account for that climactic
portion, and must at best simply wave it aside as being a peculiar
mis-step.
5 Comments:
At 7:30 AM, David said…
Does anyone know what the relevant passages in Kant and Hasker are?
At 8:12 AM, Jason said…
Victor writes: "Tell me where all the red bricks are, and even without using the word wall, I can know that there is a wall over there. The properties of the wall are entailed by the properties of the bricks."
There is, of course, a second part to this argument.
It is, on the face of it, silly to claim that a brick wall is entirely composed of not-bricks. Yet we now know that a brick itself is entirely composed of not-brick entities, just as a wall is entirely composed of not-wall entities.
At one level of composition, then, a (presumed to exist for sake of argument) brick wall is clearly composed of at least some bricks. At a more fundamental level of composition, though, the brick wall is clearly composed entirely of not-bricks (because even its bricks are themselves composed of not-bricks.)
Consequently, it should be admitted (as I always have admitted, though curiously this admission on my part is commonly ignored by our opponents) that it is not necessarily nonsensical to claim that a brick wall is entirely composed of not-bricks.
This claim, in itself, is _not_ the problem I have with this claim.
Analogically speaking, this is my problem:
a.) I find that all walls, whenever they want to be taken seriously _as_ walls (especially when they are making truth claims, including claims of moral truth), tacitly or explicitly (often explicitly) claim to be _brick_ walls: to be walls which are composed at least partly of brick.
b.) Some of these walls also make one of the following claims of truth: either the ultimate, irreducibly foundational fact of reality, upon which their own composition (as brick walls) is based, is definitely not-brick in its foundationally identifying property; or else that the descriptions of 'brick/not-brick' are so nebulous that there is no point speaking of this Independent Fact in such terms at all.
This is not yet my problem, btw.
c.) Even these walls, however, agree that at least sometimes a (definite) lack of brick-ness in the behavior of a wall results in unreliable claims of truth. For instance, I find that they are especially fond of claiming such a lack of brick-ness in the specific behavior of other walls making claims that the IF has brick-ness as a foundationally identifying property. This purported lack of brick-ness is specifically _why_ they reject their opponents' claim of truth about the brick-ness of the IF; or, relatedly, they explain the rise and persistance of such incorrect beliefs as being a result of lack of brick in those opponent walls, or perhaps faulty brick, or at least insufficient brick.
d.) I am quite prepared in principle to agree with them, that truth claims insufficiently founded on brick should not be accepted--even if the walls in question happen to be on my own side of the aisle (so to speak). Furthermore, I am quite aware that many of the walls on my own side of the aisle not only have insufficient brick for their truth claims, but that they also have a (highly annoying) habit of verbally disdaining the use of brick at all in their claims about the IF (including the brick-ness of the IF).
Consequently, I have absolutely no problem (in principle) with certain walls rejecting such insufficiently bricked truth claims.
e.) I do, however, reserve the same right to reject insufficiently bricked truth claims--on exactly the same principle.
f.) The particular walls whom I've been discussing, are meanwhile claiming to me that the IF upon which my (and their) own bricked behaviors are based, either is fundamentally not-brick, or else there's no point discussing such properties at all in regard to the foundational grounds of our own brick-ness.
g.) Consequently, these walls are telling me that in their own particular cases:
g1.) not-brickness has led to brick-ness (while remaining foundationally not-brick);
g2.) or else they themselves are actually not-brick walls (appearances to the contrary), though their own truth claims can and should be regarded as acceptable anyway;
g3.) or else that although it's pointless to discuss brick/not-brick in regard to the grounds of our brickness, the distinction of brick/not-brick can be made clearly enough at least to reject truth-claims (such as the IF having brick-ness) for being insufficiently bricked.
In regard to g3, I can only reply that this looks more than a little over-convenient. If the distinction doesn't hold when discussing the grounds of our brickness, why does it hold when they dismiss a truth-claim as being insufficiently bricked?
In regard to g2 and g1, I ask: since we know that at least sometimes not-brickness leads only to more not-brickness, and since we agree that insufficient brickness is at least sometimes ground for our rejection of a truth claim; then on what ground am I supposed to accept that the claims of these walls can be possibly reliable now?
Will proponents g1 through g3 answer by sheer ungrounded assertion? Or will they answer "Because..."?
If they answer by sheer ungrounded assertion--then (dropping my analogy) I literally have no reason to believe their own truth-claims: and we _agree_ that if I have insufficient reason to believe something, then I should not believe it. ('No reason' seems sufficiently insufficient to me. {g} As it does to them, at least sometimes.)
If they answer with _any_ attempt at a grounding 'because' (regardless of subsequent details)--then they are presuming the answer to the question, in order to answer the question. They are presuming that their own truth claims can be possibly reliable, in order to explain how their own truth claims can be possibly reliable.
And this is something they _have to do_, sooner or later: because the particular claims they are making not only introduce scepticism on the topic, they agree that at least sometimes (or even in the overwhelming majority of cases) it is _proper_ to be sceptical about the accuracy of truth-claims given such conditions _which they say are fundamental to ALL claims of truth_.
No atheist (or intrinsic agnostic) will agree that Christianity is true, for instance, based on sheerly ungrounded Christian assertions. On the contrary, they hold such assertions against such acceptance.
I am not aware of any atheist (or intrinsic agnostic) who would agree that Chrisitanity is true, for instance, because Christian belief is fundamentally a series of automatic reactions to stimuli. I am not aware of any such person who would accept such a truth-claim set, even if it could be proven that Christians (for instance) are exceptionally efficient at such knee-jerk behaviors. I am not aware of any such person who would even for a moment entertain the thought that Christianity (for instance) might be true _on such grounds_. On the contrary, is it not intensely obvious that such people use the attribution of such grounds to _reject_ the truth-claims of their opponents?
What then _should_ I believe, when they tell me that _all_ claims of truth are ungrounded assertions, and/or else are _all_ fundamentally a series of automatic reactions to stimuli?
Yet it is impossible to claim atheism (whether naturalistic or supernaturalistic) without entailing that all truth-claims (including the ones being made by atheists as atheists) are fundamentally a series of automatic reactions to stimuli--even if they go on to propose (which not all atheists do) that in such-n-such complex arrangements the automatic non-intentive reactions and counterreactions, produce intentive behaviors (i.e. become _actions_).
Thus I conclude, that atheism should be deducted out of the option list. I should conclude not-atheism to be true.
(Unless the same argument zorches not-atheism, too. {g} But that's a further story...)
At 9:00 PM, Blue Devil Knight said…
Egads. Don't take this personally, but reading these convoluted philosophical arguments makes me SOOOO glad I left philosophy for neuroscience!!!
On to the philosophy. Looking at the beginning of the argument:
1. [...]the various components of the field are experienced by a single subject simultaneously.
I will grant this for purposes of argument. It resonates with my folk psychology. It does seem that people attribute experiences distributed over space and time to someone, namely, themselves, and (except in pathological cases) not others.
2. Only something that functions as a whole rather than as a system of parts could experience a visual field as a unity.
Before looking at the rest, it is crucial for me to understand the meaning of the terms in this premise.
What is it for something to function as a whole? Does a nutcracker function as a whole? The braking system of a car? Do there exist examples from science of things acting as wholes rather than the sum of their parts? I can ask the same question of what it means for something to function as a system of parts. What does that mean? Canonical examples are much more helpful than lengthy definitions...
By the way, a nice blog. I am an atheist, naturalist, neuroscientist, but find discussions of the unity of consciousness very interesting. I have seen it used to support quantum theories of mind (yuck!), but never non naturalism! Interesting.
At 10:13 AM, Mike Wiest said…
Right on Victor. I think you have hold of a valid and important insight. I suspect that you will have a hard time getting cognitive scientists to hear what you're saying though.
There's just one thing I don't think you have quite right, with respect to points 4 and 5 of your argument. If we imagine that the brain can be adequately described by classical physics, your whole argument stands and I agree that it is inescapable although many people will try to convince you that lots of 're-entrant connections' or 'complexity' or 'self-representation' or 'chaotic nonlinear attractor dynamics' will somehow give you the unity you demand. Don't be intimidated by their jargon--they change shapes like Proteus but they can't wiggle out of your argument!
In physics one says that a classical model is 'local,' meaning the behavior of any whole is entirely determined by small or infinitesimal parts and their interactions with immediate neighbors. But we've known classical physics is wrong for about a hundred years. In modern physics, that is quantum physics, spatially separated entities can be in immediate, instantaneous causal contact (as in the famours Aspect nonlocality experiments). Moreover, in quantum systems, a particular global configuration of parts can effectively change what the parts are and the basic rules under which they operate (as in a superconductor).
So I'm saying in classical physics holism is false. In quantum physics, holism is true. The reductionists themselves proved that holism is true!
This line of thinking really is a dangerous idea to a lot of people, so a lot of people try hard not to see it.
I don't know if this will seem disappointing to you, if you thought you had a proof of a non-physical soul. But if something can have effects in the physical world, we may prefer to call it physical, even if it may require 'new physics' to describe. I expect the truth, or the fundamental reality, to be one; so I don't expect to find any contradictions between true religion and true science. I see greater potential for constructing the bridge between science and religion in modern physics because it allows us to (somewhat) naturalize consciousness, and also because it gives us a way to think rationally about how 'infinite quantities' and 'global properties of the cosmos' can influence local finite beings.
I'm the one who has tried to convince Blue Devil Knight that the unity of consciousness implies a quantum brain. He may be disappointed to hear me talking about infinite beings. Anyway, some of our debate about the unity of consciousness is at:
http://forebrain.blogspot.com/2005/03/
functionalism-and-its-discontents.html
Stay strong, Victor.
Mike Wiest
At 10:21 AM, Blue Devil Knight said…
Dammit. Why did I tell you about this site Mike? :-)
I am still very curious about the terms in Premise 2...